[Reelin]

In the limited case where redistribution is equivalent to disposal from the perspective of the producer, and the food goes directly to people who are otherwise starving (ie literally incapable of purchasing food) I just don't see how that can be the case.

Obviously this includes a number of assumptions which might not hold. The redistributed product can't reenter the market. It must only go to those who otherwise could not have purchased it or an equivalent in the near term. The total value being redistributed must be insignificant relative to the market as a whole (to limit secondary effects). Etc.

> markets aggregate information and package it up in a single metric we call price

In terms of the movement of information, product that would otherwise have been destroyed seems irrelevant. Consumers who were otherwise incapable of consuming seem irrelevant. Am I missing something?