|
|
|
|
|
by finnthehuman
2167 days ago
|
|
The quoted argument may be true, but it is not sufficient to argue that psychologically damaging someone is violence. It's a bit like affirming the consequence. If we posit that (physical) violence causes damage, and that a person can be psychologically damaged, it's not a strong argument to work backwards that anything that causes damage is violence. With that path of logic I could also say: pan-frying food causes it to become cooked, therefore pan-frying is a form of broiling. We're talking about language so of course we can overload the word "violence" to mean more than exclusively physical acts.
But without hard and fast boundaries, it becomes harder to communicate. And this article is talking about a reduction in clarity to a classification. We can expect to find that for some number of people, their moral and legislative opinions about "violence" are strictly limited to physical acts. You may disagree with those people, and that's fine. But we can't change their opinions just by unilaterally altering the descriptive boundaries of the words they use to express their opinions. |
|