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by isaachier
2172 days ago
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Usually the combination of names for the theory means that researchers recognize both versions as largely equivalent (e.g. Newton-Leibnitz axiom). The contention that the combined theories must be the definition of computability should be true about each theory in isolation. If a Turing machine cannot calculate any computable problem, then why bother defining a Turing machine? What is the purpose of the definition if not to prove that any computable problem can be solved using the device? The same goes for lambda calculus. |
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> can't be computed by a Turing machine or the lambda calculus
I agree they're equivalent. That's been proven. Maybe that would be clearer if it said "both a turing machine and the lambda calculus"? That's how I meant it.
Anyway I was just trying to add to the discussion by pointing out that what makes the Church-Turing Thesis a thesis or conjecture is that it hasn't been proven that "any computable problem can be solved using the device". That's generally accepted but not proven.
The equivalence of turing machines and the lambda calculus is actually a theorem though because it has been proven.