[ghufran_syed]

By this definition, if Adolf Hitler had gone to live in Israel, a majority Jewish democracy, he would no longer be a racist, because his “prejudice” was no longer “backed by institutional, structural power” - have I got that right?

[bmn__]

No, it's not like that, GP has the wrong conception of the topic. Racism is the thought or ideology alone. This means that the hypothetical Hitler in Israel still fulfils the definition.

Conflating racism with the power to put the supremacist wishes and ideas into practice is somewhere between pointless and negligently dangerous.