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by mehrdadn 2195 days ago
> But if you have a no soliciting sign posted on your property, and the salesperson is refusing to vacate the property, they can be assessed trespassing fines and possible legal charges.

How is this different from when you don't have the sign? Do they get to refuse vacating the property without trespassing in that case?

1 comments

It's not a black/white situation. It's a 'argue in front of a judge' situation.

With sign: Unassailable evidence that tresspassers are informed they are not welcome.

Without sign. Owner word vs tresspasser word.

The latter is a weaker stance.