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by P-ala-din
2196 days ago
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yeah, the definition of prevalence is clear to me. but it's the other way around. Men and women are affected with the same severity but women are more likely to develop it. ( or at least that's what I understood from bradjohnson's comment). |
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I can only see two ways to make both statements consistent:
- Men and women are both likely to have an general 'diagnosis' of imposter syndrome, but women experience more 'acute attacks' of it per unit time. Half of of men and women feel like imposters during a year, but the affected women feel that way twice a week, while the affected men feel it once/week.
- Women experience it more severely than men: a male colonel feels like a lt. colonel, but a female colonel feels like a major)
Could be some combination of the two...or the writing is just a mess!