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by kube-system
2237 days ago
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Having an ideological preference is not the same thing as being partisan, nor is it evidence thereof. These are different things. Someone can be partisan and not have an ideological preference. (eg. party employees, pandering politicians) Someone can have an ideological preference and not be partisan. (eg. religious leaders, philosophers) If you want to demonstrate that SCOTUS members are partisan, you need demonstrate they voted for the a party's preferences instead of their own ideological preference. If you are instead demonstrating that they voted in line with their own ideological preference, you are simply pointing out that humans have belief systems. |
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