[defen]

> This is objectively untrue for any sensible definition of "most": 67.4% of inhabited housing units in the US are inhabited by the owner.

Are you sure that 67.4% of inhabited housing units in the US are actually inhabited by the owner? If I take out a 30 year loan on a house and then move in, the bank still owns that property. I would expect the number to be significantly lower than 67.4% when you factor in rentals + people living in homes with refinancing or otherwise not-fully-paid-off mortgages. But I don't actually know what the number is or where to find it.

[tptacek]

The bank does not own your mortgaged house. They have a claim on it when it comes time to liquidate. It's easy to see that the homeowner "owns" the house: they can rent it to anyone else at any rate, raising rates as the market changes; the bank is stuck with the terms of the 30 year mortgage.

[defen]

Good point. But there does seem to me (never owned a home) that there is a qualitative difference between someone who owns their home in the clear, and someone who is using their home as collateral for a loan, which I thought the original poster was getting at. I might be way off though.

[tptacek]

Sure there is: one homeowner has a couple hundred thousand dollars of secured debt, and the other doesn't. In neither case is there any practical difference vis a vis the house itself. The homeowner who "owns his home free and clear" can still lose the house owing to any other major debt; there are even states where you are likely to lose your house in a conventional bankruptcy.

[T-hawk]

> It's easy to see that the homeowner "owns" the house:

More to the point, the homeowner is the one exposed to appreciation or depreciation on the open market. The bank has a fixed dollar value worth.