[fbonetti]

> But if there's a fall in aggregate demand at a given price level, there are _fewer_ dollars chasing the same number of goods for a period of time. So if government spending is greater than taxation for that given period, it doesn't necessarily cause inflation.

I actually completely agree, but with a caveat. It may not cause inflation in terms of this years price level being higher than last years price level, but it will cause a decline in the purchasing power of the dollar. For example, let's say in the absence of intervention the price level would fall by 2%, but with intervention the price level would stay the same. That's still a 2% decline in purchasing power.

> The "monetary base" increases because of the way they define the monetary base.

The monetary base is defined as the sum of all currency (including coin) plus bank deposits. It increases or decreases completely at the Fed's discretion, because the Fed has the unique ability to create reserves. This isn't some semantic trickery.

[laurus]

Assuming that the fall in aggregate demand will last for several time periods, in the absence of intervention, the companies lay off part of their workforce, since now they don't need to produce as much per time period. So now unemployment is up and overall output is lower. By cutting output, the companies don't necessarily have to cut prices. In short: the lack of intervention doesn't necessarily lead to a fall in the price level.

The point of saying that the Treasury bond accounts aren't counted as part of the monetary base while the reserve accounts are is that it doesn't really matter which account your money is in at the Fed. My original comment was pointing out that QE just moves reserves from one account to the other and that this has little effect on overall economic activity because lending by private banks isn't reserve constrained (MMT people do a good job explaining this as well).