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by logicchains
2260 days ago
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That's a completely different thing. The minimum wage wasn't originally only offered to white people: it was mandated for everyone, for the purpose of rendering those with lower-paying jobs (people of color, immigrants) unemployed, or preventing them from competing with whites. The briefing paper at https://www.cato.org/sites/cato.org/files/pubs/pdf/bp017.pdf discusses this. "The law provided that all federal construction contractors with contracts inexcess of $5,000 or more must pay their workers the "prevailing wage," which in practice meant the wages ofunionized labor. The measure passed because Congressmen saw the bill as protection for local, unionized[12] white workers' salaries in the fierce labor market of the Depression.[13] In particular, white union workers were angry that black workers who were barred from unions were migrating to the North in search of jobs in the building trades and undercutting "white" wages.[14] The comments of various congressmen reveal the racial animus that motivated the sponsors and supporters of the bill. In 1930, Representative John J. Cochran of Missouri stated that he had "received numerous complaints in recent months about southern contractors employing low-paid colored mechanics getting work and bringing the employees from the South."[15] Representative Clayton Allgood, supporting Davis-Bacon on the floor of the House, complained of "cheap colored labor" that "is in competition with white labor throughout the country."[16]" |
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So it was mandated for "everyone", but by your own description, not really, because it adjusted another variable - who had a job - by race, which is practically the same thing as being racially exclusionary.
This is not so different to how black people in theory got the right to vote after the Civil War, but practically were excluded from voting in many areas until just 50 years ago.