| Soooo.... - SARS started out with a similar <4% estimated fatality rate and was then revised upwards to anywhere from 9-15% later. - COVID-19 is caused by a different strain of the same virus as SARS. - The CFR of SARS and COVID-19 appear to be very similar, and more notably, appeared by be very similar when we had around 8,000 infections which is where SARS ended. (Similar meaning the CFR hovers between 4% and 20% of closed cases.) How are we so sure that this is any less deadly than SARS? The above suggests to me one of the two is likely to be true: 1. There could have been many more undetected cases of SARS than we knew about, indicting an IFR much lower than it's recorded CFR. 2. COVID-19 could actually end up having an IFR that is similar to SARS (~10%). But of course, I am no epidemiologist, so I assume there's a flaw in my logic. Did I miss something, or is this pretty much the same disease as SARS but with a higher R0? |
Studies on COVID-19 estimate that the true IFR is somewhere between 0.1% to 0.39%...why? Because the more we test, the more we find asymptomatic and mild cases. And we're yet to even do the type of serological testing that would give us such a decisive sample. Yet we're ALREADY seeing data that suggests that the IFR is lower than SARS and asymptomatic cases/transmission are common. [0]
I never read anything about SARS being mild or asymptomatic in the majority of patients...in fact it was the opposite. It was so severely symptomatic that the virus killed itself with natural selection. If you had SARS-COV-11 and exhibited high viral load, you were likely too sick to go spread it. The only serological testing they did on SARS-COV-1 deemed asymptomatic cases to be uncommon [1]. Quite the opposite of COVID-19.
0: https://www.cebm.net/covid-19/global-covid-19-case-fatality-...
1: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3035549/