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by someguyorother 2271 days ago
It appears to be saying "authoritarian governments can use both direct persuasion and faceless persuasion. Democracies can't use the former, and can't use the latter unless they allow themselves to by the methods shown here."

Direct persuasion would be something akin to Weber's charismatic authority: the typical cult of personality stuff. A representative democracy, not having its identity tied to one singular leader, can't do that.

1 comments

Democracies use direct persuasion extensively, typically on non-majority groups, for obvious reasons.
You're using "direct persuasion" differently from parent. And I have no clue which is accepted. Parent seems to equate "direct persuasion" with "charismatic persuasion", but for you it seems more like coercion.

Right?

I read "direct persuasion" as a reference to "authoritarian control" as quoted from the Wikipedia article.
OK, makes sense.