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by jamesaepp
2264 days ago
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I'm not looking for an argument, I've never noticed this behavior before. Why is this done? People are saying this is some kind of way to combat spamming/spoofing/malicious email but I don't see how that's the case. If the source address of the packets matches a blacklist then you can correlate against that. While not impossible to forge an IP address, it's certainly more trivial to edit the SMTP header (I'm not saying that would avoid detection, mind you). What benefit do we gain from including the origin's IP address throughout the entire header history? |
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