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by qw
5590 days ago
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You can't compare the output of a country with over 300 million people with Northern Europe. The money spent on technology alone is probably larger than the combined national budgets of those countries. Of course this will produce more noticeable results, but that doesn't mean that they don't contribute to innovation. |
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Why not? The comparison is considered fair whenever it favors Northern Europe, so why is it unfair when NE doesn't do as well?
Northern Europe has roughly the same population as the US. The people look basically the same. They're considered first world. etc.
> The money spent on technology alone is probably larger than the combined national budgets of those countries.
Not even close. Total govt spending, per capita, is roughly the same. (Canada spends a bit less per person than the US.) So, there's no way that US govt tech spending, which is a small fraction of govt spending, can be greater than the total govt spending in those countries.
The US probably does have more private spending on tech than those countries, but that's because the US' greater gdp/person lets it spend more money privately on everything.
So, why is their GDP so much lower? We keep hearing how much better they are, so why doesn't it show up in output?
Yes, it's plausible to choose lower output, but is that really what's going on? Let's see the numbers showing that having less makes them better off.