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by arcticbull 2276 days ago
> Where are you getting this 0.4% number from? Korea is testing extensively, so CFR is very close to IFR, and CFR is above 1%.

That's not how CFR works, and I was referring to this data [1] which showed folks under 30 with a CFR of 0%, 30-50 at 0.1% and 50-59 at 0.4%, and a total of around 0.69% at the time the data was published.

[1] https://www.businessinsider.com/coronavirus-death-rates-by-a...
1 comments
lern_too_spel 2276 days ago
> and I was referring to this data [1]

You were referring to data more than a week old, when the infected cases had neither time to recover nor time to die. The latest figure from yesterday is 1.16% of all cases according to JHU.

> That's not how CFR works

That is exactly how CFR works. If you test more people, C will be closer to I.

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arcticbull 2276 days ago
No cfr is only I at the end of the epidemic. Either way I slides the data based on those likely exposed.
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lern_too_spel 2276 days ago
No. IFR is mortality rate at the end of the epidemic. CFR exactly matches IFR if all infections are diagnosed.
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arcticbull 2276 days ago
No because you don’t know how many of them will die. In your definition you know the R not the F. Look, I’m quoting the WHO report. You’re welcome to take it up with them.
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lern_too_spel 2276 days ago
R is ratio or risk. It is directly computed from C and F just as it is directly computed from I and F.

I don't seen any quotes in your comment.

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arcticbull 2276 days ago
Case fatality rate is defined as the fatality rate of known cases. You can’t know the final mortality rate until everyone’s either dead or recovered. While anyone has it, it’s preliminary, and it’s called the CFR. Happy to dig the report up for you but this is just a logical conclusion.

CFR matches IFR not when all cases are diagnosed but when all cases are resolved.

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