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by awrence
2281 days ago
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This is a classic statistical fallacy. A test that is 50% accurate serves 0 purpose. You might as well consider coin flipping a valid test. If you tested America with this test you’d end up thinking half the country is infected. And within the ones that tested positive only half would actually be and within the negatives half would be and you would have missed them. A test needs to be materially more accurate than the odds of having the disease to be worth anything. Classic thought experiment: if 0.0001% of the population has a disease and a test is 99% effective and you test positive, what are the odds you have the disease? Answer: 1%. Complimentary thought experiment: if an expensive preventive drug was available in limited supply (for 0.1% of the population only) and the earlier you took it the more preventive it was should you give it blindly to as many positives as you can? Probably not because 99% of that would be going to waste. And you would run out of drugs to cover the actual sick. Only 10% of the sick would end up actually getting the drugs. |
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