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by samatman 2300 days ago
Conway (yep, that Conway) and Kochen elaborate on this in the Strong Free Will Theorem:

https://www.ams.org/notices/200902/rtx090200226p.pdf

1 comments

Isn't that a fundamental misunderstanding of the definition of "observer" in quantum physics? To "observe" is to cause a quantum system to interact in such a way that collapses probabilities. Whether there is a living observer is totally irrelevant.
Unless ... there is no observer at all: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Superdeterminism
I would say this is considered an open question.
AFAIK the details are unknown (e.g. what constitutes the boundary between the “measuring” system and the one that’s being “measured”), but the “alive”-ness of the observer is definitely known to be irrelevant.
Only for non-physicists and physicists wondering about things outside of physics.
it is “the measurement problem”. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Measurement_problem
if I remember correctly, this paper specifically tries to prove that those are the same