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by keiferski 2310 days ago
> After reading this passage, I would think that Turkish people cant write in Turkish during Ottoman era because of the alphabet limitations.

No, that isn't what it implies at all and I think you are misunderstanding the concept of orthography. It implies that the Arabic alphabet didn't correlate precisely to the Ottoman Turkish language and thus exceptions and non-obvious rules had to be learned, rather than being plainly obvious.

As I mentioned, English is in a similar position in that its orthography is really not suited for the language.

> English orthography, for example, is alphabetic but highly nonphonemic; it was once mostly phonemic during the Middle English stage, when the modern spellings originated, but spoken English changed rapidly while the orthography was much more stable, resulting in the modern nonphonemic situation. However, because of their relatively recent modernizations when compared to English, the Italian, Turkish, Spanish, Finnish, Czech, Latvian and Polish orthographic systems come much closer to being consistent phonemic representations.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phonemic_orthography