|
|
|
|
|
by hundt
2329 days ago
|
|
Yes, I understand this point but the ratio between rents and property values varies wildly. So yes you can compute an average ratio and say it is "equivalent" to a tax on imputed rent if you adjust by that ratio, just as you could average out the number of bathrooms in each house and say it is "equivalent" to a bathroom tax. But it's not a very compelling argument! |
|
Does it vary all that much within a specific property tax jurisdiction?