[amriksohata]

India before industralisation, did not need industralisation. It was rich because it had the oil of the time, which was cotton, spices, fertile land. The industry was removed and moved to Britain. Britain needed the industry as it was a relatively poor country, India did not.

[sifar]

I think you are conflating industry and markets. Britain already had the industries when it started colonizing India.

What it needed were the markets to sell the factory produce. That is what they traded in return for the spices and raw materials.

Hence it destroyed the competing industries in it's colonies like India - which was a huge market.

[amriksohata]

It had industries, but India did not need these industries. This was not trade, this was loot. Read up on the East India Company. It did not destroy competing industries, they shut down Muslin cloth production in Bengal lol.