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by Dylan16807
2333 days ago
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This study isn't super helpful because it doesn't give a number for cis men to compare to. But being able to statistically distinguish between 41 and 35, standard deviation 10, or between 3.08 and 2.93, standard deviation 1.4, doesn't exactly give a ton of evidence to the idea that your test groups have fundamentally different underlying reasons for feeling female. And I wouldn't be surprised if the huge difference on "Attraction to Transgender Fiction" or "Interest in Uncommitted Sex" are begging the question. If you filter biological women on the same criteria you'd probably have similar answer patterns there. Also the "autogynephilic transsexual" group is the one closer to the "biological female" group on a bunch of these metrics. |
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Pretty much all studies are complex enough that one can poke a couple holes in them this way. If that's enough to dismiss a study, then it's hard for us to believe anything in soft sciences.
And yes, the first study only looked at trans and cis women. But did you look at the amateur survey? It also surveyed trans and cis men. It reproduced the results of the academic study despite the creator of the amateur survey having no knowledge of it. That's some pretty convincing evidence in my book.
Also, do you have any studies that show that the majority of cis women would be considered autogynephilic? Because the only study I've found that asserts this is Autogynephilia in Women[1], which counted women as autogynephilic if they answered anything other than "never" to 9 questions about potentially arousing experiences. If someone answered "on occasion" to any question in that list, they were considered autogynephilic. When one of the questions is, "I have been erotically aroused by imagining that others find me particularly sexy, attractive, or irresistible.", it's easy to see what the authors of the study were trying to do. Nobody who is testing for autogynephilia uses such a low threshold.
1. https://sci-hub.tw/10.1080/00918360903005212