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by 1337biz 2369 days ago
Depending on which ideology you follow one could also make the case that this happens in first world nation that already have a problem with lower and lower birthrates.
1 comments

Of course. Because my definition of rich/poor is w.r.t. people around and not some world's mean/median. Many people in first world nations cannot afford to have as much kids as even 40 years ago.