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by dragonwriter
2372 days ago
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> So why is it still there? Why is it part of the Christian Canon? Because it provides important context for later material, e.g., Acts 15. The controversy in the early Christian Community over the application of the Jewish ritual law to gentile Christians is hard to understand without the Jewish ritual law. Also, not all Christians are gentile Christians. |
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Maybe this is a dumb question (having had no religious instruction) but do all modern Christians (except, I guess, some fundamentalists) understand that the Old Testament doesn't apply to them? If that's so, it seems like that stuff should be flagged somehow, to avoid misunderstandings.
Or do some modern gentile Christians perhaps go further, and believe that the old Jewish ritual law was a misunderstanding, and not an accurate statement of God's will? And if so, who are they?
Also, who are the modern non-gentile Christians?
I found a site that explains some of this,[0] but have no clue about its reliability. The root is here.[1]
0) http://www.winternet.com/~swezeyt/bible/origins/jwGn.htm
1) http://www.winternet.com/~swezeyt/bible/origins/originsMain....