[Fnoord]

Let's say there are two people who are supposed to get a punishment. One is found guilty by a fair trial, the other one is not found guilty by a fair trial.

For some superficial rule, I may only punish the person who has been found guilty by also punishing the person who has not been found guilty.

Can you explain to me how this is fair?

Here is where you and I differ. You find it OK when a party (e.g. business) uses your private data to sell or otherwise use for their benefit. I believe such personal data is ultimately my say. And I believe only informed opt-in (optional, not part of a package deal ie. how GDPR works) is a fair way to deal with such situation.