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by Splines 5611 days ago
Exactly. They never did any testing designed to specifically not have the result show in Bing.
1 comments

Which means they do not know the boundaries of their problem. What part of googles argument is countered by it though?
It means that they have falsely arrived at a conclusion due to positive bias. They might be right, but they haven't proven it sufficiently.

The inverse of the conclusions of their experiment are also incorrectly assumed (Google results, using IE8/Bing toolbar, make Bing results != Bing results, when using the IE8/Bing toolbar, are from Google).