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by likpok 2386 days ago
You've missed rayiner's argument, which is that the household income is more than the sum of the median man and the median woman. That is: two married people make more than two single people.

There are a number of arguments you could make as to why (for example: married people tend older and so are farther in their careers), but it's not just "married households have two incomes and single households have one".

1 comments

> There are a number of arguments you could make as to why (for example: married people tend older and so are farther in their careers), but it's not just "married households have two incomes and single households have one".

Sure I didn't say it was the only explanation. But it is a sufficient one to prove the relationship is causal.