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by chongli
2421 days ago
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That's only the most limited version of the theorem which has since been renamed the de Moivre-Laplace theorem [1]. The rabbit hole goes much deeper when you talk about the most general form which works for any set of independent and identically distributed random variables, not just binomial random variables. [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Moivre–Laplace_theorem |
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