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by diffeomorphism
2423 days ago
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I am not sure that is preferable. If "a government invokes its authority to seize or destroys a citizen's property" what does it derive this authority from? If it is from eminent domain it is allowed to do A but must follow rules B. If it is not from eminent domain, such as in this case, the first question is not whether it has to follow rules B, but whether it is allowed to do A at all. |
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My point is that this _is_ eminent domain, because eminent domain should be defined by the action (government taking control of private property) not the purported intention.