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by tialaramex
2431 days ago
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Mmm. The philosophical position that it's essential to be embodied in order to have intelligence seems intuitively reasonable but is very much unproven. You will find philosophers and cognitive scientists who are sure you're right, but they don't have much hard evidence, and you will also find people like me who are pretty sure you're wrong but likewise have no hard evidence. In the specific remember that deaf-blind people exist, so if you're sure that you "need something visual or auditory" then those people are not, according to your beliefs, able to understand language. I think they'll disagree with you quite strongly. |
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I got curious if/how deafblind people learn to communicate in the first place, if they are completely deafblind from birth. If humans can learn not just communication but language without either vision or hearing, that seems to suggest either extreme adaptability or language learning being quite decoupled from vision and hearing. From an evolutionary standpoint, I imagine that both deafness and blindness are probably uncommon enough that language learning could have explicit dependencies on both hearing and vision.
I found an old-looking video about communication with deafblind people. At the linked timestamp is a woman who is deafblind since age 2.
https://youtu.be/usaf3bVVvjY?t=840