|
|
|
|
|
by lammalamma25
2433 days ago
|
|
Ignoring the debate about its usefulness, I have a really hard time with the line of thinking that minority/disadvantaged populations do poorly on the test therefore it is discriminatory. Everyone takes the same test. Preparing for it more (prep classes etc) will make you do better. That is true, but what does a non discriminatory measure look like then? Unless it has exactly proportional results then it can be called discriminatory. What sort of test/measure can you create that will make having resources to prepare for it more than someone else not matter? Would that even be a good measure? |
|
The best thing about having 2 measures that don't agree is you can pick which one you want to be the true source, and which one is terrible and wrong. Then you can write a story that fits your desired narrative.
If disadvantaged minorities did better on tests vs grades, do you have any doubt we wouldn't have a scandal about teacher's highly subjective racist marking?