|
|
|
|
|
by dahart
2439 days ago
|
|
I think that response is dodging the question and being very hand-wavy. I didn't ask if the distributions are different. They are different, that's a fact we know, and what many people believe is the problem. The question is, what evidence is there that the differences are intrinsic? For that, there's very little evidence in favor and strong evidence against. Specifically, the differences in the distributions of preferences among women over time and country by country are larger than today's differences between men and women in the US. That's pretty solid evidence that the distributions are cultural and not intrinsic to gender. If those distribution differences were constant over a long time, say a thousand years, and constant globally, then your argument might have a leg to stand on. |
|
The established way to classify people's personality traits is the "Big Five"/OCEAN model: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Five_personality_traits
Systematic gender differences show up across all cultures: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Five_personality_traits#Ge...