[gwbas1c]

Then you need to go look up how it's handled in Spanish.

BTW, English is gendered, just not as much as Spanish, French, and Italian are.

[davvolun]

What are you talking about? English is verifiably not as gendered as Spanish, at the very least.

All nouns in Spanish require a gender article (el/la or los/las). In English, you do not have to figure out whether "día" should be prefixed with el or la -- and in the case of "día" despite it ending in "a" which usually implies feminine and la, it's actually masculine and is properly "el día."

That doesn't even bring into it examples like ellos/ellas ("they" or "them" in English) referring to a male group or a female group where the standard rule is to use ellos if referring to an unknown group or even a group of 100 women and one man, the only application of ellas should be when you can verify every single member of the group is female.

[gwbas1c]

Look more closely at Latin gendering rules, not romance language gendering rules. In Latin, gender comes from the suffix.

It's typically carried over in suffixes from Latin: Words ending in "a" are feminine, words ending in "um" are masculine.

Or, look through common English names and see how often they follow Latin gender suffixes. Adam / Ada is an example. ("Am" is a male suffix.)

[davvolun]

I recall responding to the statement "English is just as gendered as...", but clearly that's not what you wrote. That's my fault.

[wbolster]

nit: the suffix -um in latin typically indicates a neuter grammatical gender. -us is usually masculine, and only in its accusative form it becomes -um. there are exceptions though, e.g. feminine 'manus' (hand). https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_declension