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by MauranKilom 2445 days ago
It is not necessary for the distribution to be uniform, it just has to be nonzero everywhere.
1 comments

If the distribution of A and B is uniform, the probability that C from this proper distribution is between A and B is zero.

If the distribution of A and B is also a proper distribution the probability that C is between them is positive. But then the distribution of A and B has a middle point such that 50% of the numbers are above and 50% below and the problem is trivial.