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by astine 2473 days ago
The term for this is a "stipulative definition." [1] It's only a fallacy if one does not clarify that one is using a stipulative definition instead of a more common one.

1. https://www.thoughtco.com/stipulative-definition-1692143

1 comments

Even if one is clear about the definition in use, it's the fallacy of equivocation if it is used to counter an argument using a different definition.