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by Litmus2336 2481 days ago
You're totally correct that the properties in the article were granted after abdication, but I'm not in favor of the large amount of property returned to them after WW1.

And in regards to Soviet confiscation in Czechoslovakia, I would argue that the Communist revolution in Europe is related to the fall of the Monarchy, and when Communists come to power it makes sense that they would seize the land of nobles (even those from other countries).