| I realise this might sound like a circular argument, but: Any fine imposed on a rational company for criminal conduct must be insufficient, because had the fine been sufficient, a rational company would not have engaged in the criminal conduct. In other words, if a company gets hit with an $X fine for Foo, the options are: 1. The company determined the profit from Foo was greater than $X multiplied by the probability of getting caught. 2. The company's governance meant decision-makers on Foo received bonuses for its profits, but were insulated from the costs/fines, and acted in their personal interests but against the company's interests. 3. The company underestimated $X or the probability of getting caught. 4. The company or its employees were irrational. And if you're the efficient-market-Homo-economicus type that believes 3 and 4 are impossible, that only leaves 1 and 2 - requiring fines larger than $X irrespective of what $X is or personal executive liability respectively. Of course, the downside to this argument is the results if you transfer it elsewhere in the justice system; by this logic, every crime should have infinite punishment - but an automatic death penalty for speeding is an absurd result. |
And even more so, you can attempt to make a rational decision, and still be wrong.
It’s also often said about the market, that it can remain irrational longer than you can remain solvent.