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by azernik
2493 days ago
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The Israeli case is illustrative for two reasons: * Most of the people involved had some familiarity with written and liturgical Hebrew already. * The revival was kicked off with a seed population of self-selected, ideologically-motivated Zionists in-country. * When that seed of fluent speakers spread it to larger waves of immigration, there was no alternative lingua franca. Italy was also a case where there was no alternative lingua franca, and it was in fact a dialect which was both mutually-intelligible with extant dialects, and was in fact made official in many Italian states well before unification. More generally, these both are exactly in line with GP's point: "people are motivated to learn a language when it has prestige". Both languages were absolutely high prestige at the time. |
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Based on Tuscan dialect, but my understanding (correct me if I am wrong) is it was not 100% the same as that dialect and drew from historical written forms.
The fact that mutual intelligibility exists with other dialects certainly helps. But the same is attempted here to bridge Slavic languages.
But yes. My two examples are high prestige, emerging at the right time alongside a new national identity. It has better chances than some Slavic language bufs on the internet. Just trying to say that the line between "constructed" language and a real native tongue is sometimes blurry. Failure of these attempts is not inevitable, given the right circumstances.