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by belltaco
2514 days ago
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You have it backwards. Lets assume that Chinese product does not have any US tariffs. So it costs 100 yuan = 1$. After devaluation, it will cost 50 yuan = 50 cents. When tariffs hit, you pay 50 cents to the US treasury to import it, so it's back to $1. In the next case, lets assume the tariffs hit first. Tariff of 50% makes the import cost $1.5, so China devaluation puts it back at $1 effective to you, after the tariffs you pay. |
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