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by ctlby 2547 days ago
Can you explain in what way this is a "Jim Crow era practice?"
1 comments

Probably because gerrymandering has been used to reduce the relative impact of black votes on election outcomes.
Racial gerrymandering has long been held to be illegal.

Partisan gerrymandering has not.

But do partisan issues exist orthogonally to race? In other words, is government and politics race-blind?