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by jbotz 2576 days ago
Huh, I sure put my foot in my mouth on that one... a rather big assumption I never checked. Recalibrating...

But in my defense it's worth mentioning that globally it still seems to hold true. The fact that energy consumption stopped in rich countries is apparently mostly due to the fact that manufacturing, which is one of the most energy-intensive parts of the economy, moved to poorer countries. But since the rich countries consume those manufactured products, the energy use should be counted against them too!

1 comments

See my above reply to jbay808. If you include imports, CO2 emissions attributable to the US increase by 6%. Even with that 6% upward correction, primary energy consumption per capita in the US now is lower than it was in the 1970s.