| The flows are the easy part, the stocks are much harder. 1 partner enters the marriage with a $500K paid off house, the other enters with nothing. They divorce 20 years later and the house is appraised at $2.5M, should: A: partner 1 receive $2.5M, partner 2 receive $0? B: partner 1 receive $1.25M, partner 2 receive $1.25M? C: partner 1 receive $1.5M, partner 2 receive $1M?
D: other? How does this answer change if the house can be sold vs can’t be sold? How does this answer change if partner 1 comes into the marriage with a partially paid off mortgage and both contribute to mortgage payments afterwards? How does it change if the house is underwater instead? The problem is all of the above models are legitimate models of how to split ownership, but they’re incompatible views. So you need to reach alignment at the start of the relationship over which model to use, otherwise what could have been an amicable parting ends in bitter recrimination. |
The answers to your other questions will depend on whether the couple is in a marital property state or a community property state, because the default rules regarding marital income are different.