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by russellperry 5663 days ago
"Kant's seperation between Phenomena and Noumena relates to the difference between interface and implementation, as well as to the concept of abstractions in general."

I'm not sure Kant would allow that phenomena are all that abstract. They're not eidetic/formal (although later Husserl would argue that they intend towards eidetic objects), they're merely the subjective experience of a particular thing. The (purely hypothetical) relationship between the noumena and phenomena are (naively and hypothetically) one-to-one, if there is any real relationship at all.

The n/p distinction is made by Kant not to emphasize the abstract nature of our mental experiences, but rather to emphasize a radical epistemic uncertainty regarding the objects that we would naively assume "exists" apart from the experience.