|
> To me all these bifurcations seem to me to stem from a change of a world of more evenly distributed wealth (for working, lower middle, and middle class) and one with wild inequality. > Back in the 50s and up to the 80s a single-income middle class household could still send a kid to college, buy a house, and so on. Is the right word inequality? There aren't less college places, houses in NY/the Bay, etc in the world than there were in the 80s. By extension, the problem is not enough new wealth creation rather than inequality. I'm open to being wrong, but at a guess there aren't all that many rich people who consume more than 2 degrees, live in 2 houses, etc. There are those that do, but they are relatively rare. Mostly they just get first pick from the existing stock, except in housing where they buy but then rent out in my experience, so it isn't exactly removing stock from general availability. If the rich disappeared tomorrow, would that free up enough resources that the poor could all have "whatever"? I've no answer, but rhetorically I doubt it. The rich physically can't consume that many resources in absolute terms. |
A wealthy person may have a 2. 5 million mansion and a quarter million dollar vacation home and own 3 rental homes.
They may trivially capture some of the resources available for others housing by buying up the housing supply and renting for more than the cost of the mortgage while fighting to maximize the value of investment by limiting the supply of new housing.
With 40% of their neighbors paying rent to people like them and some living on the street it's hard not to qualify the situation as unequal.