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by ginnungagap 2610 days ago
No, it turns bilinear maps into linear one! If you have three R-modules (one can read K-vector spaces if unfamiliar with modules) N,M,P and a bilinear map N×M→P then there is a unique linear map N⊗M→P compatible with the map N×M→N⊗M which is part of the structure of a tensor product. (What's really going on here in fancy terms is the so called Hom-Tensor adjunction because the _⊗M functor is adjoint to the Hom(M,_) functor, but just thinking about bilinear and linear maps is much clearer)
1 comments

Ok fair enough, I think I get you.