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by friday99 2609 days ago
The graph isn't about absolute levels, but income distribution. The point I think they are trying to make is that higher total income countries tend to have a more equal income distribution. The US doesn't fit that trend, though also some of the lower total income countries such as the Czech Republic have more equal distribution as well.
1 comments

It’s incredibly deceptive because not only is almost everyone in the US wealthier than their counterparts in the distribution in Europe, but they have much higher purchasing power due to much lower prices.
But they might also spend more of that money on things that are free in Europe.
There should be data available for distributions of income including government transfers. But I would expect that the median for US would still be faring much better than the median for France.
Based on what data would you expect that?
Do we though? I spend most of my income on rent, healthcare, and student loans. I don't buy much because at the end of the day there's not much left over.
Most expenses are housing and health care.
That's what the X axis is for.