Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by behindmyscreen 2626 days ago
That’s interesting. What’s the mechanism for that? Uninformed intuition would lead one to think there would not be a difference.
1 comments

It's a function of anatomy. The sublingual veins drain into the jugular and then vena cava. For drugs this avoids the first-pass effect, which is exploited when giving nitroglycerin for angina pectoris. Other ways to achieve this are suppositories (rectal veins) and intravenous (i.v.) or intramuscular (i.m.) injection.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lingual_veins

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_pass_effect