| Cool, you wrote a paper in law school. I wrote two dissertations at UG and PG level. Monetary policy is essential, none of the things you mention are more important. Why? Because the boom can't occur without monetary policy (this is usually not obvious to people who have only looked at US financial history where capital markets are developed). Lots of reasons are given ex-post to rationalise these movements i.e. changing technology "caused" the Canal boom...but technology is always changing. And human nature is certainly interesting...but it is an invariant (just like technological change). The enabling factor is always money. Btw, this isn't to say that, for example, regulation wasn't a factor in 2008...it was but the thing is that regulation is always a problem because when money gets loose then regulations follow. Examples of booms without bubbles: post-WW2 in the US, financial conditions were stable in the few decades (not strictly true but for our purposes) because the the main concern of monetary policy was government finance. Another example: Japan 1960s-1992, MOF had total control over lending so no bubble (only popped when they lost it). In these cases, you need to really understand how money is being created and intermediated. If you understand this then you understand why bubbles do and do not occur. If you look at unimportant things like technology, you only have reasons why bubbles do occur (this is the kind of terrible history that you presumably learn at law school). You also picked one of the absolute worst examples to demonstrate your point. The Greenspan Put was vital, "irrational exuberance" and the contrast between that approach and that of a McChesney Martin (for example) is important. Even just the change in policy under Greenspan...really bad example. I tried but was unable to think of an actual example... No-one cares about Bitcoin. We are talking about financial history, not Beanie Babies. |
My point is there is no one factor that is primarily responsible for all bubbles. There may be similar sets of factors that reoccur, but to say that monetary policy emerges as the singular most important factor throughout history doesn’t seem to me to be defensible.
Post-WW2 was a unique context because vast amounts of capital were being used to literally rebuild Europe. The US was basically the only manufacturer of scale, so I make sense that there wouldn’t be an asset bubble when there were vast numbers of projects that required capital and that were economically and financially stable rather than hype driven.
I will have to think about Japan as an example, I haven’t read the history in quite some time, I am definitely open to it being an example of a bubble cycle driven by monetary policy. My impression was that trade with the US and demographics seemed to be more a driver but I’ll look into it and post if I am persuaded.