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by SilasX
2642 days ago
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My frequency of lawbreaking would indeed (anti-)correlate with the quality of moral decisionmaking, and my frequency of lawbreaking is likely lower than those who have been convicted (at least if severity-weighted). Further, the comparison was against convicts, who do it frequently and severely enough that someone finds it worth the money to prosecute and get a conviction. And at that point, yes, a correlation appears. You're still making the same fallacy: "I can find an exception, so the correlation doesn't hold." That doesn't follow. (And, FWIW, I don't drive to work.) |
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