|
|
|
|
|
by rcdmd
2640 days ago
|
|
> In the abstract, you get this statement: "The drop in wages depressed the labor supply of men and increased that of women, especially in married couples." Seems to get cause and effect backwards. Isn't it more likely that an increase in labor supply (women entering the workforce) had, simply by the laws of supply and demand, decreased wages?[1]
[1] https://www.dol.gov/wb/stats/NEWSTATS/facts/women_lf.htm#one The paper is full of complicated-looking economic models and nice graphs-- but if you don't get the basic assumptions right it's hard to trust the fancy models. |
|
A new worker (or 50 million new female workers) does on one end increase the supply of labor, which should lower the price (wages) of it, but s/he also starts spending an income, which increases general demand in the economy and acts to push up wages.
It's not obvious what the net effect is. Economists probably have a (or several :) well thought out and validated answers to this, but my gut feel is that it all evens out.