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by linuxftw 2646 days ago
> Why do Coca-Cola and Pepsico have >60% of the soft drink market?

Well, this one is probably simple: government. I'm unsure whether it would be copyright, or trademark infringement, but if you release a product that tastes exactly like coke or pepsi, you'll probably find yourself in expensive litigation.

4 comments

Why does it have to taste exactly like the other?

The two biggies just overpower the others:

http://mentalfloss.com/article/76881/tragic-history-rc-cola

The formula for Coke is supposedly a trade-secret, for which there are no protections other than keeping it secret, and I guess maybe not acquiring it illegally.

So, on what basis would Coca-Cola or PepsiCo have for a suit?

I'm pretty sure flavours and even recipes can't be copyrighted. Perhaps patented, but as others said that makes them public and protected for only a relatively limited time. Hence why formulations like KFC and Coca Cola are kept as a trade secret instead.

Branding and awareness is their real power, and a small time competitor has no real leverage there. And perception plays a huge role in flavour, so even if your product tastes the same, it won't.

There are no legal protections for recipes.